Well, the ancient Greek pronunciation is a highly debated question. We have Joh. Reuchlin (1455-1522) who adopted the modern greek pronunciation, that is, among other things, no aspiration in case of asper spirit and η pronounced like i. He has been questioned, with some reason, by Erasmus von Rotterdam (1467-1536), in the DIALOGUS DE RECTA LATINI GRAECIQUE SERMONIS PRONUNTIATIONE, Basileae 1528. According to him, for instance, η is between a und e, that is as an open e. If we remember Sextus Empiricus, Against the Professors, I, 115, where it is said that η and ε have the same force, we see that his grounds are right. Further, if we remember Prisciani Institutiones XII, II, 9, we see that he compares the greek postpositive article, ὅς ἥ ὅ to the latin pronomen hic haec hoc, so it is obvious that that the asper spirit meant, in ancient times, an aspiration. For more on this argument, you can see ASFUERLICHE GRAMMATIK DER GRIECHISCHEN SPRACHE by R. Kuehner und F. Blass.
When i started my study of Greek (it happened a long time ago; actually I'm a beginner) I had a "scholar's prejudice", I preferred the study of ancient Greek, and I believed that a scholar's pronunciation, doubtless, was right. So when I found this site I liked the way of learning Greek and the modern pronunciation sounds good to me now. I agree with George's arguments, I search for the living language. Thanks for these classes.
Well said, George! I wholeheartedly agree with the value of using Modern Greek pronunciation, even though I just switched to it this year. Language pronunciation, even of an ancient language, should sound natural. For the same reasons, I apply this concept to my pronunciation of Latin, having recently changed to the Spanish pronunciation (not hard for me, since I'm a Spanish teacher). For the same reason, the preference for many of the Ecclesiastical Latin accent, based on Italian, makes perfect sense to me.
"Teach Yourself Greek", by F. Kinchin Smith and T.W. Melluish, which is one source of info on Classical Greek I have, says that in modern Greek Χ is pronounced both like "ch" in Scottish "loch" (apparently, I gather, like in German "ach") and like the "ch" in German "ich". However, they give no examples.
I had 2 years of German in college, so I know how to make both sounds. It would help to know if this is accurate, however, and when to use which.
I just listened to Ephesians 1 from Greek-Latin Audio.com, which uses Modern Greek pronunciation, and it sounds like the Χ is being pronounced almost as a "k". But maybe my hearing is off a little...I have a lot of sinus trouble.